T O P

Why is this note "naturalled" here? Surely E isn't sharp in this key so it's already natural?

It's a courtesy natural since the the treble had an E# earlier in the bar, and had a subsequent natural. The natural in the bass is just a reminder, but accidentals in one staff don't apply to the other.

TheLivingDaylights77

It's a courtesy natural since the the treble had an E# earlier in the bar, and had a subsequent natural. The natural in the bass is just a reminder, but accidentals in one staff don't apply to the other.


Slight_Sugar_3363

Ah, I hadn't thought of a courtesy accidental from the other staff - thanks very much!


thinknervous

Still weird that they didn't put the courtesy natural on the preceding E. All this really does is make you second-guess whether you missed an E sharp in the bass clef.


TheLivingDaylights77

Yeah, it's weird but I'm guessing they did it to coincide with the natural in the right hand. It does just end up being more visual noise this way though.


Ancient-Split1996

I think its a notation error. Sharps and flats in the right hand dont carry over to the left hand, but this is notated as thiugh it is. If the natural came earlier i would suggest that it was an accidental for ease of play but since its synced with the natural in the right hand im not so sure


Yeargdribble

I actually commented about this specific issue in [this thread](https://www.reddit.com/r/piano/comments/113pu4a/why_is_there_a_natural_even_though_accidentals/j8sgimr/) recently. I'll just C&P my post here for ease. On the "do accidentals apply to all octaves" discussion, I have to say that that while there's no rule that's 100%.... I feel like the working rule in my experience (across many instruments and 30ish years) is that anything published (or at least) written (or more importantly, published) in probably the last 100 years or more usually follows the rule that it only applies in the written octave. The idea of an accidental applying to all octaves is only something I see in very old music and it ends up causing a lot of confusion because most musicians are used to the de facto rule that it only applies to the written octave. I think most modern editions of older music make a point of putting in courtesy accidentals in those other octaves to match what (in my opinion) is the modern standard. I suspect some don't for the sake of "historical accuracy" but I honestly disagree with that idea especially since extended to its furthest limit it would create a lot of music that is functionally unreadable for modern players (like using weird clefs, etc.). I really think clarity of intention is much more important than absolute historical accuracy. The point of the music is the communicate to the player what to play and needlessly obfuscating that behind archaic and outdated musical grammar rules is sort of pointless. Save that for a 500 level music history course or something, not for published music meant to be consumed by a wide audience. I think basically once we moved to a point (probably in the Romantic era) where chromaticism got really heavy and the harmonies more dense, it just stopped making sense to assume an accidental applied to all octaves. At this point I honestly can't remember the last time I actually ran into a piece of published music where the modern de facto rule didn't exist. Probably nearly 15-20 years ago on some yellowed paper from an ancient college library. Either way, in reference to the OPs post, this is a good editorial choice in my opinion just to make it absolutely clear so there is no guesswork. --- So my last line sums it up. It's a good editorial choice to avoid any second guessing. Someone in that thread said they'd been playing for something like 30 years are were always under the impression that accidentals applied to all octaves.... so there definitely are people out there that this sort disambiguative notation helps.


Ancient-Split1996

Yeah this makes sense. But the thing is for the first half of the bar i dont think the arrangement follows the modern rule, and definitely not the rule that accidentals dont carry over to the ither hand, otherwise there wouldn't be a need for rhe natural. If they were doing it for ease surely it would also make sense for a natural at the start of the bar even though it isn't needed.


Yeargdribble

I suspect it was a decision made to do with how readers chunk music. I wouldn't be looking at the first E... I'd be reading the whole thing as a unit, and actually seeing the entire vertical stack with all the same accidentals actually reads faster to me. I think if they were staggered it would actually be harder. Like, it makes total logical sense to put it on the first E, but from a practical standpoint I totally get why it is where it is.


Ancient-Split1996

Your probably right. It just seems to me that it suggests that the previous Es were sharpened.


MuuhRenai

Lithium on piano is a whole new thing for me


themadas5hatter

It's heavy metal. ,😂


brokebackzac

I had a whole ass thing about the song being in a minor key and how courtesy reminders are common only to realize that this is not the song I thought it was. I thought it was the other Lithium by Evanescence. Damn I'm tired if I didn't notice that right away.


Slight_Sugar_3363

Your effort is appreciated anyway lol 🤣